Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 08:57
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Hillary thinks we must censor or "we lose total control". Why does she demand total control?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
How do you cope when your mother doesn't love you?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.